Friday 5 September 2014

UGC NET Solved Paper I June 2009

UGC - NET Solved I Paper JUNE 2009

UGC NET Solved Paper I June2009

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

1.    Good evaluation of written material should not be based on :
(A)    Linguistic expression
(B)    Logical presentation
(C)    Ability to reproduce whatever is read
(D)    Comprehension of subject

2.    Why do teachers use teaching aid ?
(A)    To make teaching fun-filled
(B)    To teach within understanding level of students
(C)    For students' attention
(D)    To make students attentive

3.    Attitudes, concepts, skills and knowledge are products of :
(A)    Learning    (B)     Research   (C)    Heredity    (D)    Explanation

4.    Which among the following gives more freedom to the learner to interact ?
(A)    Use of film
(B)    Small group discussion
(C)    Lectures by experts
(D)    Viewing country-wide classroom programme on TV

5.    Which of the following is not a product of learning ?
(A)    Attitudes    (B)     Concepts (C)    Knowledge    (D)    Maturation

6.    How can the objectivity of the research be enhanced ?
(A)    Through its impartiality    (B)     Through its reliability
(C)    Through its validity    (D)    All of these

7.    Action-research is :
(A)    An applied research
(B)    A research carried out to solve immediate problems
(C)    A longitudinal research
(D)    All the above

8.    The basis on which assumptions are formulated :
(A)    Cultural background of the country
(B)    Universities
(C)    Specific characteristics of the castes
(D)    All of these

9.    Which of the following is classified in the category of the developmental research ?
(A)    Philosophical research    (B)     Action research
(C)    Descriptive research    (D)    All the above

10.    We use Factorial Analysis :
(A)    To know the relationship between two variables
(B)    To test the Hypothesis
(C)    To know the difference between two variables
(D)    To know the difference among the many variables

Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15 :
While the British rule in India was detrimental to the economic development of the country, it did help in starting of the process of modernizing Indian society and formed several progressive institutions during that process. One of the most beneficial institutions, which were initiated by the British, was democracy. Nobody can dispute that despite its many shortcomings, democracy was and is far better alternative to the arbitrary rule of the rajas and nawabs, which prevailed in India in the pre-British days.
However, one of the harmful traditions of British democracy inherited by India was that of conflict instead of cooperation between elected members. This was its essential feature. The party, which got the support of the majority of elected members, formed the Government while the others constituted a standing opposition. The existence of the opposition to those in power was and is regarded as a hallmark of democracy.
In principle, democracy consists of rule by the people; but where direct rule is not possible, it's rule by persons elected by the people. It is natural that there would be some differences of opinion among the elected members as in the rest of the society.
Normally, members of any organizations have differences of opinion between themselves on different issues but they manage to work on the basis of a consensus and they do not normally form a division between some who are in majority and are placed in power, while treating the others as in opposition. The members of an organization usually work on consensus. Consensus simply means that after an adequate discussion, members agree that the majority opinion may prevail for the time being. Thus persons who form a majority on one issue and whose opinion is allowed to prevail may not be on the same side if there is a difference on some other issue. It was largely by accident that instead of this normal procedure, a two party system came to prevail in Britain and that is now being generally taken as the best method of democratic rule. Many democratically inclined persons in India regret that such a two party system was not brought about in the country. It appears that to have two parties in India – of more or less equal strength - is a virtual impossibility. Those who regret the absence of a two-party system should take the reasons into consideration. When the two party system got established in Britain, there were two groups among the rules (consisting of a limited electorate) who had the same economic interests among themselves and who therefore formed two groups within the selected members of Parliament. There were members of the British aristocracy (which landed interests and consisting of lord, barons etc) and members of the new commercial class consisting of merchants and artisans. These groups were more or less of equal strength and they were able to establish their separate rule at different times.
Answer the following questions :
11.    In pre-British period, when India was ruled by the independent rulers :
(A)    Peace and prosperity prevailed in the society
(B)    People were isolated from political affairs
(C)    Public opinion was inevitable for policy making
(D)    Law was equal for one and all

12.    What is the distinguishing feature of the democracy practiced in Britain ?
(A)    End to the rule of might is right.
(B)    Rule of the people, by the people and for the people.
(C)    It has stood the test of time.
(D)    Cooperation between elected members.

13.    Democracy is practiced where :
(A)    Elected members form a uniform opinion regarding policy matter.
(B)    Opposition is more powerful than the ruling combine.
(C)    Representatives of masses.
(D)    None of these.

14.    Which of the following is true about the British rule in India ?
(A)    It was behind the modernization of the Indian society.
(B)    India gained economically during that period.
(C)    Various establishments were formed for the purpose of progress.
(D)    None of these.

15.    Who became the members of the new commercial class during that time ?
(A)    British Aristocrats    (B)     Lord and barons
(C)    Political Persons    (D)    Merchants and artisans

16.    Which one of the following Telephonic Conferencing with a radio link is very popular throughout the world ?
(A)    TPS    (B)     Telepresence
(C)    Video conference    (D)    Video teletext

17.    Which is not 24 hours news channel ?
(A)    NDTV24x7    (B) ZEE News
(C)    Aajtak    (D) Lok Sabha channel

18.    The main objective of F.M. station in radio is :
(A)    Information, Entertainment and Tourism
(B)    Entertainment, Information and Interaction
(C)    Tourism, Interaction and Entertainment
(D)    Entertainment only

19.    In communication chatting in internet is :
(A)    Verbal communication    (B)     Non verbal communication
(C)    Parallel communication    (D)    Grapevine communication

20.    Match List-I with List-II and selec List-I    t the correct answer using the codes gh List-II
              (Artists)                    (Art)
(a)     Pandit Jasraj         (i)      Hindustani vocalist
(b)     Kishan Maharaj    (ii)     Sitar
(c)     Ravi Shankar        (iii)    Tabla
(d)     Udai Shankar       (iv)    Dance
Codes :
        (a)     (b)     (c)     (d)
(A)   (i)      (ii)     (iii)    (iv)
(B)    (i)      (iii)    (iv)    (ii)
(C)    (i)      (iii)    (ii)     (iv)  
(D)    (iii)    (ii)     (i)      (iv)

21.    Insert the missing number in the following :
         3, 8, 18, 23, 33, ?, 48
(A)    37    (B)    40    (C)    38 (D)   45

22.    In a certain code, CLOCK is written as KCOLC. How would STEPS be written in that code?
(A)    SPEST    (B)     SPSET    (C)    SPETS    (D)    SEPTS

23.    The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship mark the right choice for the second set : BDFH : OMKI : : GHIK : ?
(A)    FHJL    (B)     RPNL    (C)    LNPR    (D)    LJHF
Note: The answer for the question should be TQNL 

24.    What was the day of the week on 1st January 2001 ?
(A)    Friday    (B)     Tuesday (C)    Sunday    (D)    Wednesday
Note: Above answers are wrong it should be Monday

25.    Find out the wrong number in the sequence. 52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16
(A)    27    (B)     34    (C)    43    (D)    48

26.    In a deductive argument conclusion is :
(A)    Summing up of the premises
(B)    Not necessarily based on premises
(C)    Entailed by the premises
(D)    Additional to the premises

27.    'No man are mortal' is contradictory of :
(A)    Some man are mortal    (B)     Some man are not mortal
(C)    All men are mortal        (D)    No mortal is man

28.    A deductive argument is valid if:
(A)    premises are false and conclusion true
(B)    premises are false and conclusion is also false
(C)    premises are true and conclusion is false
(D)    premises are true and conclusion is true

29.    Structure of logical argument is based on :
(A)    Formal validity             (B)     Material truth
(C)    Linguistic expression    (D)    Aptness of examples

30.    Two ladies and two men are playing bridge and seated at North, East, South and West of a table. No lady is facing East. Persons sitting opposite to each other are not of the same sex.  One man is facing South.  Which direction are the ladies facing to ?
(A)    East and West    (B)     North and West
(C)    South and East    (D)    None of these

Question Nos. 31 to 35 NOT FOR VISUALLY HANDICAPPED CANDIDATES
Questions 31 and 32 are based on the following venn diagram in which there are three intersecting circles representing Hindi knowing persons, English knowing persons and persons who are working as teachers. Different regions so obtained in the figure are marked as a, b, c, d, e, f and g.

                                    

31.   If you want to select Hindi and English knowing teachers, which of the following is to be selected ?
(A)    g    (B)    b    (C)    c    (D)    e

32.    If you want to select persons, who do not know English and are not teachers, which of the region is to be selected?
(A)    e    (B)     g    (C)    b    (D)    a

Study the following graph carefully and answer questions 33 to 35.
                                   
33.    In which year the quantity of engineering goods' exports was maximum ?
(A)    2005    (B)     2006    (C)    2004    (D)    2007

34.    In which year the value of engineering goods decreased by 50 percent compared to the previous year?
(A)    2004    (B)     2007    (C)    2005    (D)    2006

35.    In which year the quantity of exports was 100 percent higher than the quantity of previous year?
(A)    2004    (B)     2005    (C)    2006    (D)    2007

36.    What do you need to put your web pages on the www ?
(A)    a connection to internet    (B)     a web browser (C)    a web server    (D)    all of the above

37.    Which was the first company to launch mobile phone services in India ?
(A)    Essar    (B)     BPL    (C)    Hutchison    (D)    Airtel

38.    Chandrayan I was launched on 22nd October, 2008 in India from :
(A)    Bangalore    (B)     Sri Harikota        (C)    Chennai    (D)   Ahmedabad

39.    What is blog?
(A)    Online music
(B)    Intranet
(C)    A personal or corporate website in the form of an online journal
(D)    A personal or corporate Google search

40.    Which is not online Indian Matrimonial website ?
(A)    www.jeevansathi.com    (B)     www.bharatmatrimony.com
(C)    www.shaadi.com           (D)    www.u.k.singlemuslim.com

41.    Environmental impact assessment is an objective analysis of the probable changes in :
(A)    physical characteristics of the environment
(B)    biophysical characteristics of the environment
(C)    socio-economic characteristics of the environment
(D)    all the above

42.    Bog is a wetland that receives water from :
(A)    nearby water bodies    (B)     melting
(C)    rain fall only                 (D)    sea only

43.    Which of the following region is in the very high risk zone of earthquakes ?
(A)    Central Indian Highland    (B)     Coastal region
(C)    Himalayan region    (D)    Indian desert

44.    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
                      List-I                                                       List-II
                  (Institutes)                                                   (Cities)
(a)     Central Arid Zone Institute                             (i)    Kolkata
(b)     Space Application Centre                             (ii)    New Delhi
(c)     Indian Institute of Public Administration        (iii)    Ahmedabad
(d)     Headquarters of Indian Science Congress    (iv)    Jodhpur
Codes :   
          (a)     (b)    (c)    (d)   
(A)     (iv)    (iii)    (ii)     (i)       
(B)     (iv)    (ii)     (i)     (iii)   
(C)     (iii)    (i)     (ii)     (iv)   
(D)     (i)     (ii)     (iv)    (iii)   

45.    Indian coastal areas experienced Tsunami disaster in the year :
(A)    2005    (B)     2004    (C)    2006    (D)    2007

46.    The Kothari Commission's report was entitled on :
(A)    Education and National Development
(B)    Learning to be adventure
(C)    Diversification of Education
(D)    Education and socialization in democracy

47.     Which of the following is not a Dualmode University ?
(A)    Delhi University    (B)     Bangalore University
(C)    Madras University    (D)    Indira Gandhi National Open University

48.    Which part of the Constitution of India is known as "Code of Administrators" ?
(A)    Part I    (B)     Part II    (C)    Part III    (D)    Part IV

49.    Which article of the constitution provides safeguards to Naga Customary and their social practices against any act of Parliament ?
(A)    Article 371 A      (B)     Article 371 B       (C)    Article 371 C      (D)    Article 263

50.    Which one of the following is not the tool of good governance ?
(A)    Right to information    (B)     Citizens' Charter
(C)    Social Auditing    (D)    Judicial Activism

UGC NET Solved Paper I Dec 2009

UGC - NET Solved I Paper DEC 2009

UGC NET Solved Paper I Dec2009

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

 1.    The University which telecasts interaction educational programmes through its own channel is
(A)    Osmania University
(B)    University of Pune
(C)    Annamalai University
(D)    Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)

2.    Which of the following skills are needed for present day teacher to adjust effectively with the classroom teaching ?
1.    Knowledge of technology
2.    Use of technology in teaching learning
3.    Knowledge of students’ needs
4.    Content mastery
(A)    1 & 3    (B)    2 & 3    (C)    2, 3 & 4    (D)   2 & 4

3.    Who has signed an MOU for Accreditation of Teacher Education Institutions in India ?
(A)    NAAC and UGC    (B)    NCTE and NAAC
(C)    UGC and NCTE    (D)    NCTE and IGNOU

4.    The primary duty of the teacher is to
(A)    raise the intellectual standard of the students
(B)    improve the physical standard of the students
(C)    help all round development of the students
(D)    imbibe value system in the students

5.    Micro teaching is more effective
(A)    during the preparation for teaching-practice
(B)    during the teaching-practice
(C)    after the teaching-practice
(D)    always

6.    What quality the students like the most in a teacher ?
(A)   Idealist philosophy    (B)   Compassion
(C)   Discipline    (D)   Entertaining

7.    A null hypothesis is
(A)    when there is no difference between the variables
(B)    the same as research hypothesis
(C)    subjective in nature
(D)    when there is difference between the variables

8.    The research which is exploring new facts through the study of the past is called
(A)   Philosophical research    (B)   Historical research
(C)   Mythological research    (D)   Content analysis

9.    Action research is
(A)    An applied research
(B)    A research carried out to solve immediate problems
(C)    A longitudinal research
(D)    Simulative research

10.    The process not needed in Experimental Researches is
(A)   Observation    (B)   Manipulation
(C)   Controlling    (D)   Content Analysis

11.    Manipulation is always a part of
(A)   Historical research    (B)   Fundamental research
(C)   Descriptive research    (D)   Experimental research

12.    Which correlation co-efficient best explains the relationship between creativity and intelligence ?
(A)   1.00    (B)   0.6
(C)   0.5    (D)   0.3

Read the following passage and answer the Question Nos. 13 to 18 :
The decisive shift in British Policy really came about under mass pressure in the autumn and winter of 1945 to 46 – the months which Perderel Moon while editing Wavell’s Journal has perceptively described as ‘The Edge of a Volcano’. Very foolishly, the British initially decided to hold public trials of several hundreds of the 20,000 I.N.A. prisoners (as well as dismissing from service and detaining without trial no less than 7,000). They compounded the folly by holding the first trial in the Red Fort, Delhi in November 1945, and putting on the dock together a Hindu, a Muslim and a Sikh (P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz, Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon). Bhulabhai Desai, Tejbahadur Sapru and Nehru appeared for the defence (the latter putting on his barrister’s gown after 25 years), and the Muslim League also joined the countrywide protest. On 20 November, an Intelligence Bureau note admitted that “there has seldom been a matter which has attracted so much Indian public interest and, it is safe to say, sympathy … this particular brand of sympathy cuts across communal barriers.’ A journalist (B. Shiva Rao) visiting the Red Fort prisoners on the same day reported that ‘There is not the slightest feeling among them of Hindu and Muslim … A majority of the men now awaiting trial in the Red Fort is Muslim. Some of these men are bitter that Mr. Jinnah is keeping alive a controversy about Pakistan.’ The British became extremely nervous about the I.N.A. spirit spreading to the Indian Army, and in January the Punjab Governor reported that a Lahore reception for released I.N.A. prisoners had been attended by Indian soldiers in uniform.

13.    Which heading is more appropriate to assign to the above passage ?
(A)   Wavell’s Journal    (B)   Role of Muslim League (C)   I.N.A. Trials    (D)   Red Fort Prisoners

14.    The trial of P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon symbolises
(A)    communal harmony
(B)    threat to all religious persons
(C)    threat to persons fighting for the freedom
(D)    British reaction against the natives

15.    I.N.A. stands for
(A)   Indian National Assembly    (B)   Indian National Association
(C)   Inter-national Association    (D)   Indian National Army

16.    ‘There has seldom been a matter which has attracted so much Indian Public Interest and, it is safe to say, sympathy … this particular brand of sympathy cuts across communal barriers.’ Who sympathises to whom and against whom ?
(A)    Muslims sympathised with Shah Nawaz against the British
(B)    Hindus sympathised with P.K. Sehgal against the British
(C)    Sikhs sympathised with Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon against the British
(D)    Indians sympathised with the persons who were to be trialled

17.    The majority of people waiting for trial outside the Red Fort and criticising Jinnah were the
(A)   Hindus    (B)   Muslims
(C)   Sikhs    (D)   Hindus and Muslims both

18.    The sympathy of Indian soldiers in uniform with the released I.N.A. prisoners at Lahore indicates
(A)    Feeling of Nationalism and Fraternity
(B)    Rebellious nature of Indian soldiers
(C)    Simply to participate in the reception party
(D)    None of the above

19.    The country which has the distinction of having the two largest circulated newspapers in the world is
(A)   Great Britain    (B)   The United States
(C)   Japan    (D)   China

20.    The chronological order of non-verbal communication is
(A)    Signs, symbols, codes, colours
(B)    Symbols, codes, signs, colours
(C)    Colours, signs, codes, symbols
(D)    Codes, colours, symbols, signs

21.    Which of the following statements is not connected with communication ?
(A)    Medium is the message.
(B)    The world is an electronic cocoon.
(C)    Information is power.
(D)    Telepathy is technological.

22.    Communication becomes circular when
(A)    the decoder becomes an encoder
(B)    the feedback is absent
(C)    the source is credible
(D)    the channel is clear

23.    The site that played a major role during the terrorist attack on Mumbai (26/11) in 2008 was
(A)   Orkut    (B)   Facebook
(C)   Amazon.com    (D)   Twitter

24.    Assertion (A) : For an effective classroom communication at times it is desirable to use the projection technology.
         Reason (R)    : Using the projection technology facilitates extensive coverage of course contents.
(A)    Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B)    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C)    (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D)    (A) is false, but (R) is true.

25.    January 1, 1995 was a Sunday. What day of the week lies on January 1, 1996 ?
(A)   Sunday    (B)   Monday
(C)   Wednesday    (D)   Saturday

26.    When an error of 1% is made in the length and breadth of a rectangle, the percentage error (%) in the area of a rectangle will be
(A)   0    (B)   1
(C)   2    (D)   4

27.    The next number in the series 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ? will be
(A)   74    (B)   75
(C)   76    (D)   None of the above

28.    There are 10 true-false questions in an examination. Then these questions can be answered in
(A)    20 ways    (B)   100 ways
(C)    240 ways    (D)   1024 ways

29.    What will be the next term in the following ?
         DCXW, FEVU, HGTS, ?
(A)   AKPO    (B)   ABYZ
(C)   JIRQ    (D)   LMRS

30.   Three individuals X, Y, Z hired a car on a sharing basis and paid Rs. 1,040. They used it for 7, 8, 11 hours, respectively. What are the charges paid by Y ?
(A)   Rs. 290       (B)  Rs. 320
(C)   Rs. 360       (B)  Rs. 440

31.   Deductive argument involves
(A)   sufficient evidence       (B)   critical thinking
(C)   seeing logical relations (D)   repeated observation

32.   Inductive reasoning is based on or presupposes
(A)   uniformity of nature    (B)   God created the world
(C)   unity of nature    (D)   laws of nature

33.  To be critical, thinking must be
 (A)    practical    (B)    socially relevant
(C)    individually satisfying    (D)    analytical

34.  Which of the following is an analogous statement ?
(A)    Man is like God    
(B)    God is great   
(C)    Gandhiji is the Father of the Nation
(D)    Man is a rational being.

Questions from 35 - 36 are based on the following diagram in which there are three intersecting circles. H representing The Hindu, I representing Indian Express and T representing The Times of India. A total of 50 persons were surveyed and the number in the Venn diagram indicates the number of persons reading the newspapers.
                                            
35.    How many persons would be reading at least two newspapers ?
(A)   23    (B)   25
(C)   27    (D)   29

36.    How many persons would be reading almost two newspapers ?
(A)   23    (B)   25
(C)   27    (D)   48

Explanation:
1) At least 2 : {2,3,4,......}
2) At most 2 : {0,1,2}
3) Almost 2 : {0,1}

37.    Which of the following graphs does not represent regular (periodic) behaviour of the variable f(t) ?
 
(A)   1                            (B)  2
(C)   3                            (D)  4

Study the following graph and answer the questions 38 to 40 :
                          
38.    In which year total number of patients registered in hospital X and hospital Y was the maximum ?
(A)   2003    (B)   2004
(C)   2005    (D)   2006

39.    What is the maximum dispersion in the registration of patients in the two hospitals in a year ?
(A)   8000    (B)   6000
(C)   4000    (D)   2000

40.    In which year there was maximum decrease in registration of patients in hospital X ?
(A)   2003    (B)   2004
(C)   2005    (D)   2006

41.    Which of the following sources of data is not based on primary data collection ?
(A)   Census of India    (B)   National Sample Survey
(C)   Statistical Abstracts of India    (D)   National Family Health Survey

42.    Which of the four data sets have more dispersion ?
(A)    88    91       90      92       89       91
(B)    0        1        1        0        –1       –2
(C)    3        5        2        4           1        5
(D)    0        5        8       10       –2       –8

43.    Which of the following is not related to information security on the Internet ?
(A)   Data Encryption    (B)   Water marking
(C)   Data Hiding    (D)   Information Retrieval

44.    Which is the largest unit of storage among the following ?
(A)   Terabyte    (B)   Megabyte
(C)   Kilobyte    (D)   Gigabyte

45.    bit stands for
(A)   binary information term  (B)   binary digit
(C)   binary tree (D)   Bivariate Theory

46.    Which one of the following is not a linear data structure ?
(A)   Array    (B)   Binary Tree (C)   Queue    (D)   Stack

47.    Which one of the following is not a network device ?
(A)   Router    (B)   Switch     (C)   Hub    (D)   CPU

48.    A compiler is used to convert the following to object code which can be executed
(A)   High-level language    (B)   Low-level language
(C)   Assembly language    (D)   Natural language

49.    The great Indian Bustard bird is found in
(A)   Thar Desert of Rajasthan    (B) Coastal regions of India
(C)   Malabar Coast    (D) Delta regions

50.    The Sagarmanthan National Park has been established to preserve the eco-system of which mountain peak ?
(A)   Kanchenjunga    (B) Mount Everest 
(C)   Annapurna    (D) Dhaulavira

51.    Maximum soot is released from
 (A)   Petrol vehicles     (B)   CNG vehicles
(C)   Diesel vehicles      (D)   Thermal Power Plants

52.    Surface Ozone is produced from
(A)   Transport sector  (B) Cement plants
(C)   Textile industry    (D)   Chemical industry

53.    Which one of the following non-conventional energy sources can be exploited most economically ?
(A)    Solar
(B)    Wind
(C)    Geo-thermal
(D)    Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC)

54.    The most recurring natural hazard in India is
(A)   Earthquakes    (B)   Floods
(C)   Landslides    (D)   Volcanoes

55.    The recommendation of National Knowledge Commission for the establishment of 1500 Universities is to
(A)    create more teaching jobs
(B)    ensure increase in student enrolment in higher education
(C)    replace or substitute the privately managed higher education institutions by public institutions
(D)    enable increased movement of students from rural areas to urban areas

56.    According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business in Parliament shall be transacted in
(A)    English only
(B)    Hindi only
(C)    English and Hindi both
(D)    All the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution

57.    Which of the following is more interactive and student centric ?
(A)   Seminar    (B)   Workshop
(C)   Lecture    (D)   Group Discussion

58.    The Parliament in India is composed of
(A)    Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
(B)    Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Vice President
(C)    Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President
(D)    Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats

59.    The enrolment in higher education in India is contributed both by Formal System of Education and by System of Distance Education. Distance education contributes
(A)    50% of formal system
(B)    25% of formal system
(C)    10% of the formal system
(D)    Distance education system’s contribution is not taken into account while considering the figures of enrolment in higher education

60.    Assertion (A) :   The U.G.C. Academic Staff Colleges came into existence to improve the quality of teachers.
         Reason (R)    :   University and college teachers have to undergo both orientation and refresher courses.
(A)    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B)    Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)    (A) is correct and (R) is false.
(D)    (A) is false and (R) is correct.

UGC NET Solved Paper I June 2010

UGC - NET Solved I Paper JUNE 2010

UGC NET Solved Paper I June2010


Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome


1. Which one of the following is the most important quality of a good teacher ?
(A) Punctuality and sincerity
(B) Content mastery
(C) Content mastery and reactive
(D) Content mastery and sociable

2. The primary responsibility for the teacher’s adjustment lies with
(A) The children
(B) The principal
(C) The teacher himself
(D) The community

3. As per the NCTE norms, what should be the staff strength for a unit of 100 students at B.Ed. level ?
(A) 1 + 7 (B) 1 + 9 (C) 1 + 10 (D) 1 + 5

4. Research has shown that the most frequent symptom of nervous instability among teachers is
(A) Digestive upsets
(B) Explosive behaviour
(C) Fatigue
(D) Worry

5. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) Syllabus is an annexure to the curriculum.
(B) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions.
(C) Curriculum includes both formal, and informal education.
(D) Curriculum does not include methods of evaluation.

6. A successful teacher is one who is
(A) Compassionate and disciplinarian
(B) Quite and reactive
(C) Tolerant and dominating
(D) Passive and active

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 7 to 12.
The phrase “What is it like ?” stands for a fundamental thought process. How does one go about observing and reporting on things and events that occupy segments of earth space ? Of all the infinite variety of phenomena on the face of the earth, how does one decide what phenomena to observe ? There is no such thing as a complete description of the earth or any part of it, for every microscopic point on the earth’s surface differs from every other such point. Experience shows that the things observed are already familiar,
because they are like phenomena that occur at home or because they resemble the abstract images and models developed in the human mind. How are abstract images formed ? Humans alone among the animals possess language; their words symbolize not only specific things but also mental images of classes of things. People can remember what they have seen or experienced because they attach a word symbol to them.
During the long record of our efforts to gain more and more knowledge about the face of the earth as the human habitat, there has been a continuing interplay between things and events. The direct observation through the senses is described as a percept; the mental image is described as a concept. Percepts are what some people describe as reality, in contrast to mental images, which are theoretical, implying that they are not real. The relation of Percept to Concept is not as simple as the definition implies. It is now quite clear that people of different cultures or even individuals in the same culture develop different mental images of reality and what they perceive is a reflection of these preconceptions. The direct observation of things and events on the face of the earth is so clearly a function of the mental images of the mind of the observer that the whole idea of reality must be reconsidered. Concepts determine what the observer perceives, yet concepts are derived from the generalizations of previous percepts. What happens is that the educated observer is taught
to accept a set of concepts and then sharpens or changes these concepts during a professional career. In any one field of scholarship, professional opinion at one time determines what concepts and procedures are acceptable, and these form a kind of model of scholarly behaviour.

7. The problem raised in the passage reflects on
(A) thought process (B) human behaviour (C) cultural perceptions (D) professional opinion

8. According to the passage, human beings have mostly in mind 
(A) Observation of things 
(B) Preparation of mental images
(C) Expression through language 
(D) To gain knowledge
9. Concept means
(A) A mental image  (B) A reality   (C) An idea expressed in language form   (D) All the above

10. The relation of  Percepts to Concept is
(A) Positive   (B) Negative  (C) Reflective   (D) Absolute

11. In the passage, the earth is taken as
(A) The Globe   (B) The Human Habitat  (C) A Celestial Body   (D) A Planet

12. Percept means
(A) Direct observation through the senses 
(B) A conceived idea
(C) Ends of a spectrum 
(D) An abstract image

13. Action research means
(A) A longitudinal research
(B) An applied research
(C) A research initiated to solve an immediate problem
(D) A research with socioeconomic objective

14. Research is
(A) Searching again and again
(B) Finding solution to any problem
(C) Working in a scientific way to search for truth of any problem
(D) None of the above

15. A common test in research demands much priority on
(A) Reliability
(B) Useability
(C) Objectivity
(D) All of the above

16. Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process ?
(A) Searching sources of information to locate problem.
(B) Survey of related literature
(C) Identification of problem
(D) Searching for solutions to the problem

17. If a researcher conducts a research on finding out which administrative style contributes more to
institutional effectiveness ? This will be an example of
(A) Basic Research
(B) Action Research
(C) Applied Research
(D) None of the above

18. Normal Probability Curve should be
(A) Positively skewed
(B) Negatively skewed
(C) Leptokurtic skewed
(D) Zero skewed

19. In communication, a major barrier to reception of messages is
(A) audience attitude
(B) audience knowledge
(C) audience education
(D) audience income

20. Post-modernism is associated with
(A) newspapers
(B) magazines
(C) radio
(D) television

21. Didactic communication is
(A) intra-personal
(B) inter-personal
(C) organisational
(D) relational

22. In communication, the language is
(A) the non-verbal code
(B) the verbal code
(C) the symbolic code
(D) the iconic code

23. Identify the correct sequence of the following :
(A) Source, channel, message, receiver
(B) Source, receiver, channel, message
(C) Source, message, receiver, channel
(D) Source, message, channel, receiver

24. Assertion (A) : Mass media promote a culture of violence in the society.
      Reason (R) : Because violence sells in the market as people themselves are violent in character.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

25. When an error of 1% is made in the length of a square, the percentage error in the area of a square will be
(A) 0 (B) 1/2 (C) 1 (D) 2

26. On January 12, 1980, it was a Saturday. The day of the week on January 12, 1979 was
(A) Thursday  (B) Friday  (C) Saturday  (D) Sunday

27. If water is called food, food is called tree, tree is called earth, earth is called world, which of the following grows a fruit ?
(A) Water  (B) Tree (C) World  (D) Earth

28. E is the son of A, D is the son of B, E is married to C, C is the daughter of B. How is D related to E ?
(A) Brother  (B) Uncle (C) Father-in-law  (D) Brother-in-law

29. If INSURANCE is coded as ECNARUSNI, how HINDRANCE will be coded ?
(A) CADNIHWCE
(B) HANODEINR
(C) AENIRHDCN
(D) ECNARDNIH

30. Find the next number in the following series : 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, ?
(A) 63 (B) 65 (C) 67 (D) 69

31. Which of the following is an example of circular argument ?
(A) God created man in his image and man created God in his own image.
(B) God is the source of a scripture and the scripture is the source of our knowledge of God.
(C) Some of the Indians are great because India is great.
(D) Rama is great because he is Rama.

32. Lakshmana is a morally good person because
(A) he is religious
(B) he is educated
(C) he is rich
(D) he is rational

33. Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a)and (b). Supposing the statements are true, which of the following conclusions can logically follow ?
I. Some religious people are morally good.
II. Some religious people are rational.
Conclusions :
(a) Rationally religious people are good morally.
(b) Non-rational religious persons are not morally good.
(A) Only (a) follows.
(B) Only (b) follows.
(C) Both (a) and (b) follow.
(D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows.

34. Certainty is
(A) an objective fact
(B) emotionally satisfying
(C) logical
(D) ontological

Questions from 35 to 36 are based on the following diagram in which there are three intersecting circles I,
S and P where circle I stands for Indians, circle S stands for scientists and circle P for politicians. Different
regions of the figure are lettered from a to g.

35. The region which represents non- Indian scientists who are politicians.
(A) f   (B) d   (C) a   (D) c

36. The region which represents politicians who are Indians as well as scientists.
(A) b   (B) c  (C) a   (D) d

37. The population of a city is plotted as a function of time (years) in graphic form below :

Which of the following inference can be drawn from above plot ?
(A) The population increases exponentially.
(B) The population increases in parabolic fashion.
(C) The population initially increases in a linear fashion and then stabilizes.
(D) The population initially increases exponentially and then stabilizes.

In the following chart, the price of logs is shown in per cubic metre and that of Plywood and Saw Timber in
per tonnes. Study the chart and answer the following questions 38, 39 and 40.
38. Which product shows the maximum percentage increase in price over the period ?
(A) Saw timber  (B) Plywood  (C) Log  (D) None of the above

39. What is the maximum percentage increase in price per cubic metre of log ?
(A) 6  (B) 12  (C) 18  (D) 20

40. In which year the prices of two products increased and that of the third increased ?
(A) 2000  (B) 2002  (C) 2003  (D) 2006

41. Which one of the following is the oldest Archival source of data in India ?
(A) National Sample Surveys
(B) Agricultural Statistics
(C) Census
(D) Vital Statistics

42. In a large random data set following normal distribution, the ratio (%) of number of data points which are in the range of (mean ± standard deviation) to the total number of data points, is
(A) ~ 50%  (B) ~ 67%  (C) ~ 97%  (D) ~ 47%

43. Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer ?
(A) 2  (B) 8  (C) 10  (D) 16

44. Which one of the following is an example of Operating System ?
(A) Microsoft Word
(B) Microsoft Excel
(C) Microsoft Access
(D) Microsoft Windows

45. Which one of the following represent the binary equivalent of the decimal number 23 ?
(A) 01011
(B) 10111
(C) 10011
(D) None of the above

46. Which one of the following is different from other members ?
(A) Google
(B) Windows
(C) Linux
(D) Mac

47. Where does a computer add and compare its data ?
(A) CPU
(B) Memory
(C) Hard disk
(D) Floppy disk

48. Computers on an internet are identified by
(A) e-mail address
(B) street address
(C) IP address
(D) None of the above

49. The Right to Information Act, 2005 makes the provision of 
(A) Dissemination of all types of information by all Public authorities to any person.
(B) Establishment of Central, State and District Level Information Commissions as an appellate body.
(C) Transparency and accountability in Public authorities.
(D) All of the above

50. Which type of natural hazards cause maximum damage to property and lives ?
(A) Hydrological
(B) Hydro-meteorological
(C) Geological
(D) Geo-chemical

51. Dioxins are produced from
(A) Wastelands
(B) Power plants
(C) Sugar factories
(D) Combustion of plastics

52. The slogan “A tree for each child” was coined for
(A) Social forestry programme
(B) Clean Air programme
(C) Soil conservation programme
(D) Environmental protection programme

53. The main constituents of biogas are
(A) Methane and Carbon di-oxide
(B) Methane and Nitric oxide
(C) Methane, Hydrogen and Nitric oxide
(D) Methane and Sulphur di-oxide

54. Assertion (A) : In the world as a whole, the environment has degraded during past several decades.
      Reason (R) : The population of the world has been growing significantly.
      (A) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
      (B) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
      (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
      (D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.

55. Climate change has implications for
1. soil moisture  2. forest fires  3. biodiversity 4. ground water  
Identify the correct combination according to the code :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3 
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4 
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

56. The accreditation process by National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) differs from that of National Board of Accreditation (NBA) in terms of 
(A) Disciplines covered by both being the same, there is duplication of efforts. 
(B) One has institutional grading approach and the other has programme grading approach. 
(C) Once get accredited by NBA or NAAC, the institution is free from renewal of grading, which is not a progressive decision. 
(D) This accreditation amounts to approval of minimum standards in the quality of education in the institution concerned.

57. Which option is not correct ?
(A) Most of the educational institutions of National repute in scientific and technical sphere fall under 64th entry of Union list.
(B) Education, in general, is the subject of concurrent list since 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976.
(C) Central Advisory Board on Education (CABE) was first established in 1920.
(D) India had implemented the right to Free and Compulsory Primary Education in 2002 through 86th
Constitutional Amendment

58. Which statement is not correct about the “National Education Day” of India ?
(A) It is celebrated on 5th September every year.
(B) It is celebrated on 11th November every year.
(C) It is celebrated in the memory of India’s first Union Minister of Education, Dr. Abul Kalam Azad.
(D) It is being celebrated since 2008

59. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
         List – I                                                                  List – II
(Articles of the Constitution)                                        (Institutions)
(a) Article 280                                                  (i) Administrative Tribunals
(b) Article 324                                                  (ii) Election Commission of India
(c) Article 323                                                  (iii) Finance Commission at Union level
(d) Article 315                                                  (iv) Union Public Service Commission
Codes :
      (a)  (b)  (c)  (d)
(A) (i)   (ii)  (iii)  (iv)
(B) (iii)  (ii)  (i)   (iv)
(C) (ii)  (iii)  (iv)  (i)
(D) (ii)  (iv)  (iii)  (i)

60. Deemed Universities declared by UGC under Section 3 of the UGC Act 1956, are not permitted to
(A) offer programmes in higher education and issue degrees.
(B) give affiliation to any institute of higher education.
(C) open off-campus and off-shore campus anywhere in the country and overseas respectively without
the permission of the UGC.
(D) offer distance education programmes without the approval of the Distance Education Council.

UGC NET Solved Paper I Dec 2010

UGC - NET Solved I Paper DEC 2010

UGC NET Solved Paper I Dec2010

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome
1. Which of the following variables cannot be expressed in quantitative terms ?
    (A) Socio-economic Status (B) Marital Status (C) Numerical Aptitude (D) Professional Attitude

2. A doctor studies the relative effectiveness of two drugs of dengue fever. His research would be
     classified as
   (A) Descriptive Survey  (B)Experimental Research (C) Case Study  (D) Ethnography


3. The term ‘phenomenology’ is associated with the process of
    (A) Qualitative Research  (B) Analysis of Variance (C) Correlational Study (D) Probability Sampling

4. The ‘Sociogram’ technique is used to study
    (A) Vocational Interest  (B) Professional Competence  (C) Human Relations (D) Achievement Motivation

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from to 10 :
It should be remembered that the nationalist movement in India, like all nationalist movements, was essentially a bourgeois movement. It represented the natural historical stage of development, and to consider it or to criticise it as a working-class movement is wrong. Gandhi represented that movement and the Indian masses in relation to that movement to a supreme degree, and he became the voice of Indian people to that extent. The main contribution of Gandhi to India and the Indian masses has been through the powerful movements which he launched through the National Congress. Through nation-wide action he sought to mould the millions, and largely succeeded in doing so, and changing them from a demoralised, timid and hopeless mass, bullied and crushed by every dominant interest, and incapable of resistance, into a people with self-respect and self-reliance, resisting tyranny, and capable of united action and sacrifice for a larger cause.
Gandhi made people think of political and economic issues and every village and every bazaar hummed with argument and debate on the new ideas and hopes that filled the people. That was an amazing psychological change. The time was ripe for it, of course, and circumstances and world conditions worked for this change. But a great leader is necessary to take advantage of circumstances and conditions. Gandhi was that leader, and he released many of the bonds that imprisoned and disabled our minds, and none of us who experienced it can ever forget that great feeling of release and exhilaration that came over the Indian people.
Gandhi has played a revolutionary role in India of the greatest importance because he knew how to make the most of the objective conditions and could reach the heart of the masses, while groups with a more advanced ideology functioned largely in the air because they did not fit in with those conditions and could therefore not evoke any substantial response from the masses.
It is perfectly true that Gandhi, functioning in the nationalist plane, does not think in terms of the conflict of classes, and tries to compose their differences. But the action he has indulged and taught the people has inevitably raised mass consciousness tremendously and made social issues vital. Gandhi and the Congress must be judged by the policies they pursue and the action they indulge in. But behind this, personality counts and colours those policies and activities. In the case of very exceptional person like Gandhi the question of personality becomes especially important in order to understand and appraise him. To us he has represented the spirit and honour of India, the yearning of her sorrowing millions to be rid of their innumerable burdens, and an insult to him by the British Government or others has been an insult to India and her people.

5. Which one of the following is true of the given passage ?
(A) The passage is a critique of Gandhi’s role in Indian movement for independence.
(B) The passage hails the role of Gandhi in India’s freedom movement.
(C) The author is neutral on Gandhi’s role in India’s freedom movement.
(D) It is an account of Indian National Congress’s support to the working-class movement.

6. The change that the Gandhian movement brought among the Indian masses was
(A) Physical  (B) Cultural (C) Technological (D) Psychological

7. To consider the nationalist movement or to criticise it as a working-class movement was wrong because it was a
(A) historical movement
(B) voice of the Indian people
(C) bourgeois movement
(D) movement represented by Gandhi

8. Gandhi played a revolutionary role in India because he could
(A) preach morality
(B) reach the heart of Indians
(C) see the conflict of classes
(D) lead the Indian National Congress

9. Groups with advanced ideology functioned in the air as they did not fit in with
(A) objective conditions of masses
(B) the Gandhian ideology
(C) the class consciousness of the people
(D) the differences among masses

10. The author concludes the passage by
(A) criticising the Indian masses
(B) the Gandhian movement
(C) pointing out the importance of the personality of Gandhi
(D) identifying the sorrows of millions of Indians

11. Media that exist in an interconnected series of communication – points are referred to as
      (A) Networked media  (B) Connective media  (C) Nodal media  (D) Multimedia

12. The information function of mass communication is described as
      (A) diffusion (B) publicity (C) surveillance (D) diversion


13. An example of asynchronous medium is
      (A) Radio (B) Television (C) Film (D) Newspaper

14. In communication, connotative words are
      (A) explicit (B) abstract (C) simple (D) cultural

15. A message beneath a message is labelled as
      (A) embedded text (B) internal text (C) inter-text (D) sub-text

16. In analog mass communication, stories are
      (A) static (B) dynamic (C) interactive (D) exploratory

17. Determine the relationship between the pair of words ALWAYS :NEVER and then select from the
      following pair of words which have a similar relationship :
     (A) often : rarely  (B) frequently : occasionally  (C) constantly : frequently  (D) intermittently : casually

18. Find the wrong number in the sequence : 52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16
      (A) 27 (B) 34 (C) 43 (D) 48

19. In a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35, then PAT is written in the same code as
      (A) 30 (B) 37 (C) 39 (D) 41

20. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship, make the right
      choice for the second set : AF : IK : : LQ : ?
      (A) MO (B) NP (C) OR (D) TV

21. If 5472 = 9, 6342 = 6, 7584 = 6, what is 9236 ?
      (A) 2  (B) 3  (C) 4  (D) 5

22. In an examination, 35% of the total students failed in Hindi, 45% failed in English and 20% in both. The
      percentage of those who passed in both subjects is
      (A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 40


23. Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a) and (b).
      Supposing the statements are true, which of the following conclusions can logically follow ?
        Statements :
           I. Some flowers are red.
          II. Some flowers are blue.
        Conclusions :
         (a) Some flowers are neither red nor blue.
         (b) Some flowers are both red and blue.

      (A) Only (a) follows.
      (B) Only (b) follows.
      (C) Both (a) and (b) follow.
      (D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows.

24. If the statement ‘all students are intelligent’ is true, which of the following statements are false ?
      (i) No students are intelligent.
     (ii) Some students are intelligent.
     (iii) Some students are not intelligent.
     (A) (i) and (ii)
     (B) (i) and (iii)
     (C) (ii) and (iii)
     (D) (i) only

25. A reasoning where we start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal statement
       is called
      (A) Deductive Reasoning
      (B) Inductive Reasoning
      (C) Abnormal Reasoning
      (D) Transcendental Reasoning

26. What is the smallest number of ducks that could swim in this formation – two ducks in front of a
      duck, two ducks behind a duck and a duck between two ducks ?
      (A) 5  (B) 7  (C) 4  (D) 3

27. Mr. A, Miss B, Mr. C and Miss D are sitting around a table and discussing their trades.
      (i) Mr. A sits opposite to the cook.
      (ii) Miss B sits right to the barber
     (iii) The washerman sits right to the barber
     (iv) Miss D sits opposite to Mr. C
      What are the trades of A and B ?
     (A) Tailor and barber (B) Barber and cook (C) Tailor and cook (D) Tailor and washerman

28. Which one of the following methods serve to measure correlation between two variables ?
      (A) Scatter Diagram (B) Frequency Distribution (C) Two-way table (D) Coefficient of Rank Correlation

29. Which one of the following is not an Internet Service Provider (ISP) ?
      (A) MTNL (B) BSNL (C) ERNET India (D) Infotech India Ltd.

30. The hexadecimal number system consists of the symbols
       (A) 0 – 7 (B) 0 – 9 , A – F (C) 0 – 7, A – F (D) None of these

31. The binary equivalent of (–15)10 is (2’s complement system is used)
      (A) 11110001 (B) 11110000 (C) 10001111 (D) None of these

32. 1 GB is equal to
      (A) 2^30 bits (B) 2^30 bytes (C) 2^20 bits (D) 2^20 bytes
       Note: In the question paper the symbol ^ is omitted by mistake 

33. The set of computer programs that manage the hardware/software of a computer is called
      (A) Compiler system (B) Operation system (C) Operating system (D) None of these

34. S/MIME in Internet technology stands for
      (A) Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
      (B) Secure Multimedia Internet Mail Extension
      (C) Simple Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
      (D) Simple Multimedia Internet Mail Extension

35. Which of the following is not covered in 8 missions under the Climate Action Plan of
      Government of India ?
      (A) Solar power  (B) Waste to energy conversion  (C) Afforestation  (D) Nuclear energy

36. The concentration of Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) in drinking water should not exceed
      (A) 500 mg/L  (B) 400 mg/L  (C) 300 mg/L  (D) 200 mg/L

37. ‘Chipko’ movement was first started by
       (A) Arundhati Roy  (B) Medha Patkar  (C) Ila Bhatt  (D) Sunderlal Bahuguna

38. The constituents of photochemical smog responsible for eye irritation are
      (A) SO2 and O3  (B) SO2 and NO2  (C) HCHO and PAN  (D) SO2 and SPM

39. Assertion (A) : Some carbonaceous aerosols may be carcinogenic.
      Reason (R)    : They may contain polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs).
     (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
     (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
     (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
     (D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.

40. Volcanic eruptions affect
     (A) atmosphere and hydrosphere
     (B) hydrosphere and biosphere
     (C) lithosphere, biosphere and atmosphere
     (D) lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere

41. India’s first Defence University is in the State of
     (A) Haryana  (B) Andhra Pradesh  (C) Uttar Pradesh  (D) Punjab

42. Most of the Universities in India
      (A) conduct teaching and research only
      (B) affiliate colleges and conduct examinations
     (C) conduct teaching/research and examinations
     (D) promote research only

43. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body ?
       (A) Election Commission
       (B) Finance Commission
       (C) Union Public Service Commission
       (D) Planning Commission

44. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
     (A) Indian Parliament is supreme.
     (B) The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review.
     (C) There is a division of powers between the Centre and the States.
     (D) There is a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.

45. Which one of the following statements reflects the republic character of Indian democracy ?
     (A) Written Constitution
     (B) No State religion
     (C) Devolution of power to local Government institutions
     (D) Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament

46. Who among the following appointed by the Governor can be removed by only the President of India ?
     (A) Chief Minister of a State
     (B) A member of the State Public Service Commission
     (C) Advocate-General
     (D) Vice-Chancellor of a State University

 47. If two small circles represent the class of the ‘men’ and the class of the ‘plants’ and the big circle
represents ‘mortality’, which one of the following figures represent the proposition ‘All men are mortal.’ ?
ANS (C)

The following table presents the production of electronic items (TVs and LCDs) in a factory during the period from 2006 to 2010. Study the table carefully and answer the questions from 48 to 52 :

48. In which year, the total production of electronic items is maximum ?
(A) 2006  (B) 2007  (C) 2008  (D) 2010

49. What is the difference between averages of production of LCDs and TVs from 2006 to 2008 ?
(A) 3000 (B) 2867 (C) 3015 (D) 2400
     Note: None of the answer is correct 

50. What is the year in which production of TVs is half the production of LCDs in the year 2010 ?
(A) 2007 (B) 2006 (C) 2009 (D) 2008

51. What is the ratio of production of LCDs in the years 2008 and 2010 ?
(A) 4 : 3 (B) 3 : 4 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 2 : 3

52. What is the ratio of production of TVs in the years 2006 and 2007 ?
(A) 6 : 7 (B) 7 : 6 (C) 2 : 3 (D) 3 : 2

53. Some students in a class exhibit great curiosity for learning. It may be because such children
      (A) Are gifted 
      (B) Come from rich families
      (C) Show artificial behavior
      (D) Create indiscipline in the class

54. The most important quality of a good teacher is
      (A) Sound knowledge of subject matter
      (B) Good communication skills
      (C) Concern for students’ welfare
      (D) Effective leadership qualities

55. Which one of the following is appropriate in respect of teacher student relationship ?
      (A) Very informal and intimate
      (B) Limited to classroom only
      (C) Cordial and respectful
      (D) Indifferent

56. The academic performance of students can be improved if parents are encouraged to
      (A) supervise the work of their wards
      (B) arrange for extra tuition
      (C) remain unconcerned about it
      (D) interact with teachers frequently

57. In a lively classroom situation, there is likely to be
      (A) occasional roars of laughter
      (B) complete silence
      (C) frequent teacher-student dialogue
      (D) loud discussion among students

58. If a parent approaches the teacher to do some favour to his/her ward in the examination,
      the teacher  should
     (A) try to help him
     (B) ask him not to talk in those terms
     (C) refuse politely and firmly
     (D) ask him rudely to go away

59. Which of the following phrases is not relevant to describe the meaning of research as a process ?
      (A) Systematic Activity
      (B) Objective Observation
      (C) Trial and Error
      (D) Problem Solving

60. Which of the following is not an example of a continuous variable ?
      (A) Family size  (B) Intelligence  (C) Height  (D) Attitude